- April 10, 2024
- Posted by: legaleseblogger
- Category: Related News
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Hello all,
I was just reading the news about the daughter that stole $200k from her senile parents and how she gambled and spent the money in two weeks.
Say for example: instead of her stealing money, it was a physical object such as a laptop. It is my understanding that if she onsold the laptop to an individual or a business, that the laptop would be considered stolen goods and returned to the parents once recovered, with the entity who received the laptop shit out of luck.
In the previous case though, the individual stole funds and gambled them away at a pub. Would the pub not be liable for returning the stolen funds, and any loss occurred be on them (or them suing the thief for damages)?
From a purely financial standpoint, accounting and taxes can be updated and changed on the pub’s side – with minimal issue, so why isn’t this the case that the money is returned? Legally the pub has accounting and tracking of funds in relation to poker machines as a legal requirement – with substantial record keeping of every cent.
I’ve tried Googling and I couldn’t find a definitive answer.
(Also sorry if this is a stupid question).
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****** just grabbed a
Great question.
Vile situation.
Not exactly, receiving stolen goods requires there to be some kind of deep suspicion or knowledge by the buyer that it’s stolen. When someone walks up to a retail shop or a pub, there’s no reason to think the cash does not belong to the bearer.
Buying a new laptop at a steep discount around the side of a pub.. that’s more likely to be considered receiving stolen goods.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bona_fide_purchaser?wprov=sfla1
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